Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency b. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing c. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly d. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call 2 / 40 2. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on b. Collecting physical evidence c. Documenting the scene of crime d. Cordoning off the area of crime 3 / 40 3. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors b. Using a body worn camera c. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained d. The use of CCTV equipment 4 / 40 4. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Ask to take leave until the court hearing b. Interview all witnesses to the offence c. Get the signed statement from the person arrested d. Explain to the police why they arrested the person 5 / 40 5. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo b. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo c. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo d. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo 6 / 40 6. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience b. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses c. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found d. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident 7 / 40 7. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon b. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge c. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? d. All of the above 8 / 40 8. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. The Magistrate Court b. The Crown Court c. Home Office d. The licensing authority 9 / 40 9. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, clarify and note b. See, cordon and note c. See, check and notify d. See, control and notify 10 / 40 10. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. Any object made or adapted to cause harm b. A broken bottle c. A chef’s knife d. A blade caried for religious reasons 11 / 40 11. What is the main role of security officer? a. To ensure that everyone feels good b. To ensure that customers are safe c. To promote the business d. To provide good customer service 12 / 40 12. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. A person walking past the building every day at the same time b. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue c. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV d. An unknown car in the office car park 13 / 40 13. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive b. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work c. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs d. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy 14 / 40 14. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the event of fire emergency b. In the event of lone working hours c. In the event of shoplifting d. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack 15 / 40 15. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Raise the alarm and evacuate b. Contact the police c. Search for the bomb d. Remain calm 16 / 40 16. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives b. To provide police with assistance at large events c. To regulate customer rights within private security industry d. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry 17 / 40 17. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. Annual Health and Safety training b. Annual fire safety training c. License to practice d. At least 12 month experience in the industry 18 / 40 18. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical b. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical c. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High 19 / 40 19. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Search the premisses to try and locate any device b. Inform the management and wait for further instructions c. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it d. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately 20 / 40 20. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Permanent Protection Equipment b. Personal Prevention Equipment c. Personal Protective Earplugs d. Personal Protective Equipment 21 / 40 21. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. Job ID card b. An over 18 gym membership card c. Valid driving license d. A senior student library card 22 / 40 22. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher b. Raise the alarm c. Open all doors and windows close to the fire d. Call the emergency services 23 / 40 23. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical b. Hidden, obstructed, typical c. Hidden, obsolete, typical d. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical 24 / 40 24. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Accurate, brief, clear b. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate c. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate d. Accurate, brief, concise 25 / 40 25. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Local police know which premisses to test targeting b. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance c. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license d. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily 26 / 40 26. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Doorman and Disabled b. Dangerous and Drunk c. Diseases and Dangerous d. Dangerous and Disabled 27 / 40 27. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That pain was the only method to control the person b. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail c. That it was used thoroughly d. That no bystanders were injured 28 / 40 28. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest b. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary c. Call the police to assist with the arrest d. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk 29 / 40 29. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy b. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others c. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift d. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work 30 / 40 30. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles b. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis c. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues d. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts 31 / 40 31. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is a strong possibility b. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently c. An attack is highly unlikely d. An attack is possible, but not likely 32 / 40 32. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. National Pubwatch b. Health and Safety Officer c. Youth organisation parades d. Local Council 33 / 40 33. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting absenteeism at workplace b. Reporting place at workplace c. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace d. Reporting drug abuse at workplace 34 / 40 34. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. High b. Substantial c. Severe d. Critical 35 / 40 35. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. A threat passed by police b. A customer asking questions about security arrangements c. Multiple sightings of the same person d. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ 36 / 40 36. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. Staying in the same place all day on the site b. Asking questions about security arrangements c. A customer trying to make lots of friends d. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site 37 / 40 37. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away b. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are c. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order d. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident 38 / 40 38. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. Having all customer bags searched before entry b. The visible presence of vigilant security staff c. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals d. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present 39 / 40 39. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish b. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate c. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate d. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit 40 / 40 40. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look b. It may be used as evidence by police or in court c. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be d. It shows that they are doing their job better than others
