Competency Assessment ā Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points ā given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. In the correct order, what do the two Dās In RIDDOR stand for? a. Dangerous and Disabled b. Dangerous and Drunk c. Doorman and Disabled d. Diseases and Dangerous 2 / 40 2. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy b. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work c. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift d. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others 3 / 40 3. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To provide police with assistance at large events b. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry c. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives d. To regulate customer rights within private security industry 4 / 40 4. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo b. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo c. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo d. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo 5 / 40 5. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Personal Protective Earplugs b. Personal Prevention Equipment c. Permanent Protection Equipment d. Personal Protective Equipment 6 / 40 6. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate b. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate c. Accurate, brief, clear d. Accurate, brief, concise 7 / 40 7. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customerās possession? a. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found b. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience c. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident d. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses 8 / 40 8. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue b. An unknown car in the office car park c. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV d. A person walking past the building every day at the same time 9 / 40 9. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace b. Reporting drug abuse at workplace c. Reporting absenteeism at workplace d. Reporting place at workplace 10 / 40 10. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Contact the police b. Remain calm c. Search for the bomb d. Raise the alarm and evacuate 11 / 40 11. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the event of lone working hours b. In the event of fire emergency c. In the event of shoplifting d. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack 12 / 40 12. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis b. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts c. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles d. Taking violent situation to oneās own to protect colleagues 13 / 40 13. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. The Crown Court b. Home Office c. The licensing authority d. The Magistrate Court 14 / 40 14. Licensed premisses have permitted capacityĀ limitsĀ to make sure that the: a. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license b. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance c. Local police know which premisses to test targeting d. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily 15 / 40 15. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That pain was the only method to control the person b. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail c. That no bystanders were injured d. That it was used thoroughly 16 / 40 16. What is the main role of security officer? a. To promote the business b. To ensure that everyone feels good c. To provide good customer service d. To ensure that customers are safe 17 / 40 17. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. The visible presence of vigilant security staff b. Having all customer bags searched before entry c. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present d. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals 18 / 40 18. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. Using a body worn camera b. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained c. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors d. The use of CCTV equipment 19 / 40 19. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. Youth organisation parades b. National Pubwatch c. Local Council d. Health and Safety Officer 20 / 40 20. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. Annual fire safety training b. Annual Health and Safety training c. At least 12 month experience in the industry d. License to practice 21 / 40 21. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. A customer trying to make lots of friends b. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site c. Asking questions about security arrangements d. Staying in the same place all day on the site 22 / 40 22. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical b. Hidden, obsolete, typical c. Hidden, obstructed, typical d. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical 23 / 40 23. On discovering fire, whatās the first thing security operative should do? a. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher b. Call the emergency services c. Raise the alarm d. Open all doors and windows close to the fire 24 / 40 24. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate b. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish c. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit d. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate 25 / 40 25. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call b. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing c. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency d. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly 26 / 40 26. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are b. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident c. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order d. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away 27 / 40 27. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, clarify and note b. See, cordon and note c. See, check and notify d. See, control and notify 28 / 40 28. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy b. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs c. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work d. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive 29 / 40 29. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. A customer asking questions about security arrangements b. Multiple sightings of the same person c. A drunk customer shouting āābombāā d. A threat passed by police 30 / 40 30. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. It shows that they are doing their job better than others b. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look c. It may be used as evidence by police or in court d. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be 31 / 40 31. What is the definition of an āāoffensiveāā weapon? a. A broken bottle b. A blade caried for religious reasons c. A chefās knife d. Any object made or adapted to cause harm 32 / 40 32. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge b. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? c. All of the above d. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon 33 / 40 33. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical b. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High c. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical 34 / 40 34. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Get the signed statement from the person arrested b. Explain to the police why they arrested the person c. Interview all witnesses to the offence d. Ask to take leave until the court hearing 35 / 40 35. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. Substantial b. Severe c. High d. Critical 36 / 40 36. What does a āā criticalāā terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently b. An attack is a strong possibility c. An attack is possible, but not likely d. An attack is highly unlikely 37 / 40 37. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. Job ID card b. Valid driving license c. An over 18 gym membership card d. A senior student library card 38 / 40 38. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it b. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately c. Search the premisses to try and locate any device d. Inform the management and wait for further instructions 39 / 40 39. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk b. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary c. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest d. Call the police to assist with the arrest 40 / 40 40. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Collecting physical evidence b. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on c. Documenting the scene of crime d. Cordoning off the area of crime