Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift b. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work c. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy d. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others 2 / 40 2. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Ask to take leave until the court hearing b. Interview all witnesses to the offence c. Get the signed statement from the person arrested d. Explain to the police why they arrested the person 3 / 40 3. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. High b. Substantial c. Severe d. Critical 4 / 40 4. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate b. Accurate, brief, concise c. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate d. Accurate, brief, clear 5 / 40 5. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident b. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order c. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are d. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away 6 / 40 6. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting drug abuse at workplace b. Reporting absenteeism at workplace c. Reporting place at workplace d. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace 7 / 40 7. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. Home Office b. The Crown Court c. The Magistrate Court d. The licensing authority 8 / 40 8. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. An unknown car in the office car park b. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV c. A person walking past the building every day at the same time d. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue 9 / 40 9. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is a strong possibility b. An attack is possible, but not likely c. An attack is highly unlikely d. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently 10 / 40 10. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. The use of CCTV equipment b. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained c. Using a body worn camera d. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors 11 / 40 11. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. A threat passed by police b. A customer asking questions about security arrangements c. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ d. Multiple sightings of the same person 12 / 40 12. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To regulate customer rights within private security industry b. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives c. To provide police with assistance at large events d. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry 13 / 40 13. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present b. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals c. Having all customer bags searched before entry d. The visible presence of vigilant security staff 14 / 40 14. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. A blade caried for religious reasons b. Any object made or adapted to cause harm c. A broken bottle d. A chef’s knife 15 / 40 15. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive b. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work c. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy d. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs 16 / 40 16. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, clarify and note b. See, check and notify c. See, control and notify d. See, cordon and note 17 / 40 17. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical b. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High c. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical 18 / 40 18. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses b. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident c. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience d. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found 19 / 40 19. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site b. Asking questions about security arrangements c. Staying in the same place all day on the site d. A customer trying to make lots of friends 20 / 40 20. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be b. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look c. It may be used as evidence by police or in court d. It shows that they are doing their job better than others 21 / 40 21. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance b. Local police know which premisses to test targeting c. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license d. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily 22 / 40 22. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo b. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo c. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo d. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo 23 / 40 23. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate b. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate c. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish d. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit 24 / 40 24. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the event of fire emergency b. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack c. In the event of shoplifting d. In the event of lone working hours 25 / 40 25. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? b. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge c. All of the above d. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon 26 / 40 26. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical b. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical c. Hidden, obsolete, typical d. Hidden, obstructed, typical 27 / 40 27. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Raise the alarm b. Call the emergency services c. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher d. Open all doors and windows close to the fire 28 / 40 28. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly b. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call c. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency d. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing 29 / 40 29. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Search for the bomb b. Contact the police c. Raise the alarm and evacuate d. Remain calm 30 / 40 30. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail b. That pain was the only method to control the person c. That it was used thoroughly d. That no bystanders were injured 31 / 40 31. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Inform the management and wait for further instructions b. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it c. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately d. Search the premisses to try and locate any device 32 / 40 32. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. An over 18 gym membership card b. Valid driving license c. A senior student library card d. Job ID card 33 / 40 33. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts b. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles c. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues d. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis 34 / 40 34. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. Annual Health and Safety training b. License to practice c. Annual fire safety training d. At least 12 month experience in the industry 35 / 40 35. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. Health and Safety Officer b. National Pubwatch c. Youth organisation parades d. Local Council 36 / 40 36. What is the main role of security officer? a. To promote the business b. To provide good customer service c. To ensure that customers are safe d. To ensure that everyone feels good 37 / 40 37. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Personal Protective Equipment b. Personal Prevention Equipment c. Permanent Protection Equipment d. Personal Protective Earplugs 38 / 40 38. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Diseases and Dangerous b. Dangerous and Drunk c. Doorman and Disabled d. Dangerous and Disabled 39 / 40 39. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Cordoning off the area of crime b. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on c. Documenting the scene of crime d. Collecting physical evidence 40 / 40 40. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest b. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary c. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk d. Call the police to assist with the arrest
