Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. Annual Health and Safety training b. License to practice c. Annual fire safety training d. At least 12 month experience in the industry 2 / 40 2. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue b. A person walking past the building every day at the same time c. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV d. An unknown car in the office car park 3 / 40 3. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hidden, obstructed, typical b. Hidden, obsolete, typical c. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical d. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical 4 / 40 4. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. A customer asking questions about security arrangements b. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ c. Multiple sightings of the same person d. A threat passed by police 5 / 40 5. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. It shows that they are doing their job better than others b. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be c. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look d. It may be used as evidence by police or in court 6 / 40 6. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it b. Search the premisses to try and locate any device c. Inform the management and wait for further instructions d. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately 7 / 40 7. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish b. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate c. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate d. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit 8 / 40 8. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident b. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience c. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses d. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found 9 / 40 9. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. Home Office b. The Magistrate Court c. The licensing authority d. The Crown Court 10 / 40 10. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is possible, but not likely b. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently c. An attack is a strong possibility d. An attack is highly unlikely 11 / 40 11. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo b. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo c. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo d. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo 12 / 40 12. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Personal Protective Earplugs b. Personal Protective Equipment c. Permanent Protection Equipment d. Personal Prevention Equipment 13 / 40 13. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call b. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly c. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing d. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency 14 / 40 14. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting drug abuse at workplace b. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace c. Reporting place at workplace d. Reporting absenteeism at workplace 15 / 40 15. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack b. In the event of shoplifting c. In the event of fire emergency d. In the event of lone working hours 16 / 40 16. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. Critical b. Severe c. Substantial d. High 17 / 40 17. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher b. Call the emergency services c. Raise the alarm d. Open all doors and windows close to the fire 18 / 40 18. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That pain was the only method to control the person b. That no bystanders were injured c. That it was used thoroughly d. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail 19 / 40 19. What is the main role of security officer? a. To provide good customer service b. To ensure that everyone feels good c. To promote the business d. To ensure that customers are safe 20 / 40 20. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary b. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk c. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest d. Call the police to assist with the arrest 21 / 40 21. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues b. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts c. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis d. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles 22 / 40 22. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. Having all customer bags searched before entry b. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present c. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals d. The visible presence of vigilant security staff 23 / 40 23. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. National Pubwatch b. Local Council c. Youth organisation parades d. Health and Safety Officer 24 / 40 24. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident b. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are c. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away d. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order 25 / 40 25. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, check and notify b. See, clarify and note c. See, control and notify d. See, cordon and note 26 / 40 26. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. Valid driving license b. A senior student library card c. An over 18 gym membership card d. Job ID card 27 / 40 27. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Collecting physical evidence b. Cordoning off the area of crime c. Documenting the scene of crime d. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on 28 / 40 28. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Get the signed statement from the person arrested b. Interview all witnesses to the offence c. Explain to the police why they arrested the person d. Ask to take leave until the court hearing 29 / 40 29. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical b. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical c. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High d. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical 30 / 40 30. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To regulate customer rights within private security industry b. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry c. To provide police with assistance at large events d. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives 31 / 40 31. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained b. Using a body worn camera c. The use of CCTV equipment d. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors 32 / 40 32. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work b. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy c. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift d. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others 33 / 40 33. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Accurate, brief, concise b. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate c. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate d. Accurate, brief, clear 34 / 40 34. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. Staying in the same place all day on the site b. A customer trying to make lots of friends c. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site d. Asking questions about security arrangements 35 / 40 35. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Contact the police b. Raise the alarm and evacuate c. Remain calm d. Search for the bomb 36 / 40 36. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Diseases and Dangerous b. Dangerous and Drunk c. Dangerous and Disabled d. Doorman and Disabled 37 / 40 37. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy b. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work c. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive d. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs 38 / 40 38. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. A chef’s knife b. A blade caried for religious reasons c. Any object made or adapted to cause harm d. A broken bottle 39 / 40 39. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? b. All of the above c. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge d. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon 40 / 40 40. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance b. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license c. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily d. Local police know which premisses to test targeting
