Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. Annual Health and Safety training b. Annual fire safety training c. At least 12 month experience in the industry d. License to practice 2 / 40 2. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs b. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work c. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy d. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive 3 / 40 3. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. Using a body worn camera b. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors c. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained d. The use of CCTV equipment 4 / 40 4. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical b. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical c. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High 5 / 40 5. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, cordon and note b. See, clarify and note c. See, control and notify d. See, check and notify 6 / 40 6. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift b. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work c. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others d. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy 7 / 40 7. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. Job ID card b. A senior student library card c. Valid driving license d. An over 18 gym membership card 8 / 40 8. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts b. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis c. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues d. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles 9 / 40 9. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting absenteeism at workplace b. Reporting place at workplace c. Reporting drug abuse at workplace d. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace 10 / 40 10. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order b. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away c. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident d. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are 11 / 40 11. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is possible, but not likely b. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently c. An attack is a strong possibility d. An attack is highly unlikely 12 / 40 12. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it b. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately c. Inform the management and wait for further instructions d. Search the premisses to try and locate any device 13 / 40 13. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. Substantial b. High c. Critical d. Severe 14 / 40 14. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk b. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest c. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary d. Call the police to assist with the arrest 15 / 40 15. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the event of shoplifting b. In the event of lone working hours c. In the event of fire emergency d. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack 16 / 40 16. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. All of the above b. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge c. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? d. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon 17 / 40 17. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. It may be used as evidence by police or in court b. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be c. It shows that they are doing their job better than others d. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look 18 / 40 18. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Raise the alarm b. Call the emergency services c. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher d. Open all doors and windows close to the fire 19 / 40 19. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Personal Protective Equipment b. Permanent Protection Equipment c. Personal Protective Earplugs d. Personal Prevention Equipment 20 / 40 20. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals b. The visible presence of vigilant security staff c. Having all customer bags searched before entry d. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present 21 / 40 21. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. A threat passed by police b. A customer asking questions about security arrangements c. Multiple sightings of the same person d. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ 22 / 40 22. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo b. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo c. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo d. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo 23 / 40 23. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. Home Office b. The licensing authority c. The Magistrate Court d. The Crown Court 24 / 40 24. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Raise the alarm and evacuate b. Contact the police c. Search for the bomb d. Remain calm 25 / 40 25. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses b. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident c. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found d. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience 26 / 40 26. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Documenting the scene of crime b. Cordoning off the area of crime c. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on d. Collecting physical evidence 27 / 40 27. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license b. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance c. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily d. Local police know which premisses to test targeting 28 / 40 28. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Accurate, brief, clear b. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate c. Accurate, brief, concise d. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate 29 / 40 29. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site b. A customer trying to make lots of friends c. Staying in the same place all day on the site d. Asking questions about security arrangements 30 / 40 30. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Get the signed statement from the person arrested b. Ask to take leave until the court hearing c. Explain to the police why they arrested the person d. Interview all witnesses to the offence 31 / 40 31. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. An unknown car in the office car park b. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV c. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue d. A person walking past the building every day at the same time 32 / 40 32. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail b. That it was used thoroughly c. That pain was the only method to control the person d. That no bystanders were injured 33 / 40 33. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To regulate customer rights within private security industry b. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives c. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry d. To provide police with assistance at large events 34 / 40 34. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Doorman and Disabled b. Dangerous and Disabled c. Diseases and Dangerous d. Dangerous and Drunk 35 / 40 35. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical b. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical c. Hidden, obstructed, typical d. Hidden, obsolete, typical 36 / 40 36. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. Local Council b. Health and Safety Officer c. National Pubwatch d. Youth organisation parades 37 / 40 37. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly b. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call c. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency d. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing 38 / 40 38. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. A broken bottle b. Any object made or adapted to cause harm c. A blade caried for religious reasons d. A chef’s knife 39 / 40 39. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate b. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit c. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish d. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate 40 / 40 40. What is the main role of security officer? a. To ensure that customers are safe b. To ensure that everyone feels good c. To provide good customer service d. To promote the business
