Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. Asking questions about security arrangements b. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site c. A customer trying to make lots of friends d. Staying in the same place all day on the site 2 / 40 2. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail b. That no bystanders were injured c. That pain was the only method to control the person d. That it was used thoroughly 3 / 40 3. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate b. Accurate, brief, clear c. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate d. Accurate, brief, concise 4 / 40 4. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Interview all witnesses to the offence b. Ask to take leave until the court hearing c. Explain to the police why they arrested the person d. Get the signed statement from the person arrested 5 / 40 5. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. The Magistrate Court b. The licensing authority c. Home Office d. The Crown Court 6 / 40 6. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. A threat passed by police b. Multiple sightings of the same person c. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ d. A customer asking questions about security arrangements 7 / 40 7. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk b. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest c. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary d. Call the police to assist with the arrest 8 / 40 8. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. High b. Critical c. Severe d. Substantial 9 / 40 9. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. Health and Safety Officer b. Youth organisation parades c. Local Council d. National Pubwatch 10 / 40 10. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is possible, but not likely b. An attack is highly unlikely c. An attack is a strong possibility d. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently 11 / 40 11. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate b. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate c. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit d. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish 12 / 40 12. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Documenting the scene of crime b. Collecting physical evidence c. Cordoning off the area of crime d. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on 13 / 40 13. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Diseases and Dangerous b. Dangerous and Drunk c. Dangerous and Disabled d. Doorman and Disabled 14 / 40 14. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To provide police with assistance at large events b. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry c. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives d. To regulate customer rights within private security industry 15 / 40 15. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. Annual fire safety training b. Annual Health and Safety training c. At least 12 month experience in the industry d. License to practice 16 / 40 16. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work b. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy c. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs d. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive 17 / 40 17. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away b. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are c. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order d. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident 18 / 40 18. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Inform the management and wait for further instructions b. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately c. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it d. Search the premisses to try and locate any device 19 / 40 19. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical b. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical c. Hidden, obstructed, typical d. Hidden, obsolete, typical 20 / 40 20. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. Job ID card b. A senior student library card c. Valid driving license d. An over 18 gym membership card 21 / 40 21. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace b. Reporting drug abuse at workplace c. Reporting place at workplace d. Reporting absenteeism at workplace 22 / 40 22. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical b. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical c. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High 23 / 40 23. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be b. It may be used as evidence by police or in court c. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look d. It shows that they are doing their job better than others 24 / 40 24. What is the main role of security officer? a. To ensure that everyone feels good b. To ensure that customers are safe c. To provide good customer service d. To promote the business 25 / 40 25. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. Any object made or adapted to cause harm b. A blade caried for religious reasons c. A chef’s knife d. A broken bottle 26 / 40 26. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts b. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles c. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis d. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues 27 / 40 27. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, control and notify b. See, clarify and note c. See, cordon and note d. See, check and notify 28 / 40 28. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy b. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others c. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift d. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work 29 / 40 29. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance b. Local police know which premisses to test targeting c. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license d. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily 30 / 40 30. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the event of lone working hours b. In the event of fire emergency c. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack d. In the event of shoplifting 31 / 40 31. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency b. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call c. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing d. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly 32 / 40 32. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. Having all customer bags searched before entry b. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals c. The visible presence of vigilant security staff d. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present 33 / 40 33. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Call the emergency services b. Raise the alarm c. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher d. Open all doors and windows close to the fire 34 / 40 34. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo b. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo c. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo d. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo 35 / 40 35. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue b. A person walking past the building every day at the same time c. An unknown car in the office car park d. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV 36 / 40 36. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Personal Protective Earplugs b. Personal Protective Equipment c. Permanent Protection Equipment d. Personal Prevention Equipment 37 / 40 37. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Search for the bomb b. Raise the alarm and evacuate c. Contact the police d. Remain calm 38 / 40 38. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? b. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon c. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge d. All of the above 39 / 40 39. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. Using a body worn camera b. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained c. The use of CCTV equipment d. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors 40 / 40 40. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience b. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident c. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found d. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses
