Competency Assessment – Security Personnel Test Details This is a 40 multiple-choice questions/answers competency test. All question must be completed. Mark one answer per question. 0 points – given if answer is wrong, 5 points – given if answer is correct. The form must be submitted within 45 minutes after you start the test. Pass rate is 140 points (70%). Your name and surname will have to be entered after you press the finish button. 1 / 40 1. With regards to terrorism – what might be an indicator of suspicious activity? a. An unknown car in the office car park b. A person asking questions about opening and closing times of the venue c. A person trying to avoid being seen on CCTV d. A person walking past the building every day at the same time 2 / 40 2. Following the arrest of the person in the licensed premisses, police arrived, and a door supervisor must: a. Interview all witnesses to the offence b. Explain to the police why they arrested the person c. Get the signed statement from the person arrested d. Ask to take leave until the court hearing 3 / 40 3. What is the most effective way of reducing personal risk at work place? a. Adequately using physical force to resolve conflicts b. Ensuring non involvement of police to avoid legal hassles c. Conducting risk assessment on regular basis d. Taking violent situation to one’s own to protect colleagues 4 / 40 4. Who is the premisses license granted by? a. The Crown Court b. Home Office c. The licensing authority d. The Magistrate Court 5 / 40 5. Under Health and safety legislation all employees have a duty to? a. Undertake a detailed risk assessment of their working environment at the beginning of each shift b. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy c. Undergo annual health screen with a doctor to ensure they are fit to work d. Follow processes and procedures that have been put in place to protect their safety and that of others 6 / 40 6. At the scene of a serious incident in the licensed premisses, a door supervisor should make sure that: a. No one tampers with the evidence relating to the incident b. Broken glass and other items that may harm people are cleared away c. Everyone present at the time of an incident stays exactly where they are d. All the evidence is sealed and recorded in alphabetical order 7 / 40 7. Licensed premisses have permitted capacity limits to make sure that the: a. Licensing authority charges a correct fee for premisses license b. Premises are safe and can be evacuated easily c. Premisses has enough room for customers to dance d. Local police know which premisses to test targeting 8 / 40 8. Why must security operatives must have clear fire evacuation procedure? a. To allow them to be the first one to reach the assembly point and make a call b. So that they can provide an effective assistance in the event of an emergency c. To help to judge whether evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly d. To enable them to re-enter the premisses to search for anyone who is missing 9 / 40 9. Which of the following would be a reason to evacuate a premisses? a. Multiple sightings of the same person b. A drunk customer shouting ‘’bomb’’ c. A threat passed by police d. A customer asking questions about security arrangements 10 / 40 10. In the correct order, what do the two D’s In RIDDOR stand for? a. Dangerous and Drunk b. Diseases and Dangerous c. Doorman and Disabled d. Dangerous and Disabled 11 / 40 11. When do you use Run Hide Tell protocol? a. In the event of lone working hours b. In the event of shoplifting c. In the rare events of fire arms or weapons attack d. In the event of fire emergency 12 / 40 12. What is the main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001? a. To provide police with assistance at large events b. To regulate customer rights within private security industry c. To improve pay and conditions for security operatives d. To regulate some sectors of the private security industry 13 / 40 13. What is the main role of security officer? a. To provide good customer service b. To ensure that everyone feels good c. To promote the business d. To ensure that customers are safe 14 / 40 14. How would the word SECURE be pronounce using the phonetic alphabets? a. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uni, Romeo, Echo b. Sierra, Echo, Chopper, Uni, Rome, Echo c. Sarah, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo d. Sierra, Echo, Charlie, Uniform, Romeo, Echo 15 / 40 15. Which is the highest level of UK government threat level? a. High b. Substantial c. Critical d. Severe 16 / 40 16. In the event of a possible bomb threat what the first action a security operative should make? a. Search for the bomb b. Raise the alarm and evacuate c. Remain calm d. Contact the police 17 / 40 17. Which of the following best describes a manned security sector? a. The use of CCTV equipment b. Using barriers and grills over the windows and doors c. Guarding property against destruction or damage, against been stolen or against been otherwise dishonestly taken or obtained d. Using a body worn camera 18 / 40 18. Key elements in the justification of Physical Intervention include the need for it to be: a. Accurate, brief, concise b. Necessary, reasonable, proportionate c. Accurate, brief, clear d. Unnecessary, unreasonable, disproportionate 19 / 40 19. What should the door supervisor do if, when searching, they find illegal drugs in customer’s possession? a. Destroy drugs immediately and call the police to report the incident b. Security should put drugs in the pocket and hand it to the manager at their earliest convenience c. Confiscate the drugs and record how, when and where they were found d. Keep drugs in the safe place and return them to the customer when they leave the premisses 20 / 40 20. Which of this is the main reason for security officer to record incidents? a. It shows that they are doing their job better than others b. The more incidents they record, the more pay rate will be c. It may be used as evidence by police or in court d. The less incidents that record, the better premisses will look 21 / 40 21. Explain the H.O.T protocol meaning? a. Hidden, obsolete, typical b. Hidden, obstructed, typical c. Hindered, obviously suspicious, typical d. Hidden, obviously suspicious, typical 22 / 40 22. Which of the following represent the UK government threat levels in order of severity? a. Low, Substantial, Severe, High, Critical b. Low, Moderate, Substantial, High c. Low, Moderate, Substantial, Severe, Critical d. Low, Substantial, Severe, Critical 23 / 40 23. If the employee is taken to the hospital as a result of an injury sustained at work, their employer has a duty under RIDDOR to: a. Provide weekly reports to their employer to prove they are complying with the company health and safety policy b. Enter the incident in accident book once employee returns to work c. Pay the employee unlimited damages and costs d. Report the incident to the Health and Safety executive 24 / 40 24. When justifying use of Physical Intervention, what should be considered? a. That all other options have failed or were likely to fail b. That pain was the only method to control the person c. That it was used thoroughly d. That no bystanders were injured 25 / 40 25. Which of the following documents is suitable proof of ID? a. Valid driving license b. Job ID card c. An over 18 gym membership card d. A senior student library card 26 / 40 26. What is the first thing security operative should do after receiving a bomb threat over the telephone? a. Inform the management and wait for further instructions b. Search the premisses to try and locate any device c. Assume that the call is a joke and ignore it d. Record the time of the call and report to police immediately 27 / 40 27. Under the Private Security Industry Act 2001, what must a person have to be able to work as door supervisor? a. Annual fire safety training b. Annual Health and Safety training c. At least 12 month experience in the industry d. License to practice 28 / 40 28. What could lead to destruction/loss of evidence on a crime scene? a. Leaving the scene with protective clothing on b. Cordoning off the area of crime c. Documenting the scene of crime d. Collecting physical evidence 29 / 40 29. When making an arrest, what must door supervisor do? a. Tell the person you are arresting, the reason for the arrest b. Explain to the other customers, standing by, why the arrest is necessary c. Ensure that the person they arresting is not drunk d. Call the police to assist with the arrest 30 / 40 30. On discovering fire, what’s the first thing security operative should do? a. Call the emergency services b. Tackle the fire with appropriate extinguisher c. Open all doors and windows close to the fire d. Raise the alarm 31 / 40 31. What does a ‘’ critical’’ terror threat level indicate? a. An attack is highly likely and expected imminently b. An attack is possible, but not likely c. An attack is highly unlikely d. An attack is a strong possibility 32 / 40 32. Which of the following is the crime reduction initiative? a. Youth organisation parades b. Health and Safety Officer c. Local Council d. National Pubwatch 33 / 40 33. What is the definition of an ‘’offensive’’ weapon? a. A chef’s knife b. A blade caried for religious reasons c. Any object made or adapted to cause harm d. A broken bottle 34 / 40 34. While using the P.O.P model (Person, Object, Place), you make the assessment of: a. All of the above b. Are they bigger, fitter, younger, and stronger than you? c. Remote areas, away from observation, safe refuge d. An object in the persons possession or a nearby item that could be used as a weapon 35 / 40 35. The abbreviation P.P.E. stands for? a. Personal Protective Earplugs b. Personal Prevention Equipment c. Personal Protective Equipment d. Permanent Protection Equipment 36 / 40 36. Which of the following does the RIDDOR Act 1995 mandate? a. Reporting drug abuse at workplace b. Reporting accidents, incidents and injuries caused at workplace c. Reporting place at workplace d. Reporting absenteeism at workplace 37 / 40 37. What does SCaN stand for in security? a. See, clarify and note b. See, cordon and note c. See, control and notify d. See, check and notify 38 / 40 38. Which of the following might indicate a suspicious behaviour by a customer? a. A customer trying to make lots of friends b. Parking their vehicle in the parking slot and then leaving the site c. Staying in the same place all day on the site d. Asking questions about security arrangements 39 / 40 39. What does the acronym F.I.R.E. mean in the context of fire safety? a. Follow, Inform, Run, Evacuate b. Follow, Remove, Inform, Evacuate c. Find, Investigate, Remove, Exit d. Find, Inform, Restrict, Extinguish 40 / 40 40. Which of the following is the least effective deterrent for terrorist activity? a. A large sign informing the public that security staff are present b. Searching inside and outside the venue at regular intervals c. The visible presence of vigilant security staff d. Having all customer bags searched before entry
